Originally Posted by
iamharrypotter
I'm finding the way a person gains ownership of the Elder Wand all a bit vague really.
So Harry Potter was the true owner of the Elder Wand because he had disarmed Malfoy. Well all he did was grab the wand (not even the Edler wand), out of Malfoy's hand. Could a Muggle inadvertantly become the owner of the Edler Wand this way? It would all be simplar if you had to kill the previous owner, or if you overpowered the previous owner so that they formally relinquished the wand.
And if you could gain ownership of the wand simply by taking it, wouldn't the person who had picked up Dumbledores wand, after Malfoy had disarmed Dumbledore, actually have become the owner?
And seeing as Harry didn't actually take the Edler Wand when he overpowered Malfoy, would this mean he is the owner of the Elder wand? If someone has 10 wands and loses a battle with one of them, does his opponent become the owner of all 10 of them automatically just he killled the owner.
So if one day, Ginny accidentally leaves the gas hob on and Harry switches the kitchen light on and blows himself to smitherenes, Ginny is now the Elder Wand owner as she has technially defeated Harry although not in battle?
Yeah ok, I am taking this all a bit too far, but this is a kinda critical point of the book. It's the reason Harry didn't die when Voldermort tried to kill him the first and second times. And how Voldermort ended up killing himself.
Just would've been nice if it hadn't opened the door to more questions.
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